A) 0%
B) 0.08%
C) 1%
D) 10%
E) 50%
F) 100%
Go ahead and try and explain your answer.
*perfect coin: A coin that has exactly a 50% chance of landing on either heads or tails.
Think of the simplest case. 2 coin flips. There are 4 possible outcomes, both heads, both tails, or 1 of each.
Wait, I just said 4 possible outcomes, then described 3? Why?
Well, think of it like this:
HH, TT, HT, TH
Getting heads then tails is a different outcome than tails then heads, but both result in 1 of each. So, judging from that, you say, well 2 of 4, that's 50%, I knew the answer was E! Hah, not so fast...
Now, let's look at the next simplest case. 4 coin flips. Here are the possible outcomes:
HHHH, HHHT, HHTH, [HHTT], HTHH, [HTHT], [HTTH], HTTT, THHH, [THHT], [THTH], THTT, [TTHH], TTHT, TTTH, TTTT
So, there's 16 possibilities, and only 6 have equal numbers of heads and tails, I surrounded them in square brackets. Uh Oh, that's 37.5% and it's probably going to get worse as we increase the flips towards 1 million. So maybe you're leaning towards answer C or D now, right?
From here I could go into the topics of binomial coefficients, pascal's triangle and other worthwhile, interesting topics, but I'll skip the heavy math and just show you dude's triangle.
1
1 1
1 (2) 1 summed = (4)
1 3 3 1
1 4 (6) 4 1 summed = (16)
Hopefully you recognize Pascal's triangle, but if you don't there's always Wikipedia.
We only care about every other case, as you need an even number of flips to obtain a perfectly even split of heads and tails. You might recognize the numbers I put in parentheses. Those are the results we saw for 2 and 4 flips. So, now we just have to draw the next 999,996 lines of the triangle.
Don't worry, I did this on a separate sheet of paper, and the result was roughly 0.08%.
If you don't believe me, you can ask WolframAlpha
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